What does cur mean in Latin

Latin Dictionary - Forum
Su on 10/29/12 at 6:10 p.m. (citation) II
Hello! Who can tell me which part of the sentence Latin question pronouns have (specifically, it is about "cur")?
Thanks in advance for answers!
paeda on October 29, 2012 at 7:30 p.m. (citation) II
I have never heard of question words having a special name as part of a sentence. I'm curious to see if someone teaches me better and at the same time answers your question.
paeda on October 29, 2012 at 7.45 p.m. (citation) II
Interesting!

Adverb means “circumstance determination” in German. How can an interrogative pronoun be an adverb? But well, somebody just made it that way!
Su on 10/29/12 at 7:51 p.m. (quote) II
Thank you for your answers. That with the “adverb” sounds conclusive, since the question-noun replaces a clause that would otherwise be an adverbial definition. However, an adverb is a part of speech, the corresponding part of the sentence would be an adverbial definition. But paeda is certainly right too: this classification is probably made less often.
paeda on 10/29/12 at 8:02 p.m. (citation) II
In the question word “Who” the question pronoun replaces the subject, “Whom” or “Whose” objects or attributes. That doesn't seem to be very conclusive to me with the adverb.
Bibulus on 10/29/12 at 8:05 p.m. (citation) II
One must distinguish:

“Cur?” Is an adverb, NOT a question pronoun!
("Ad-verbum" -> "standing next to the verb)

Question pronomina:
quis? quid?
qui ?, quae ?, quod?
Bibulus on 10/29/12 at 8:09 p.m. (citation) II
"Why" asks for a more detailed explanation of a circumstance
(if you have toddlers, you can tell a song about it)
"Why don't the clouds fall from the sky?"
"Why is it light during the day?"

In both cases the "why" "asks" for a circumstance:
"Do not fall down" and "be bright"
paeda on 10/29/12 at 8:12 p.m. (citation) I.
Verbum also simply means “word”, right?

In German, at any rate, “why” falls under the category (part of speech) question word as well as who? Whom? What? Which one? and other.

I agree with you, Bibule, that why? is not a pronoun.
Ciceronianus on 10/29/12 at 8:16 p.m. (citation) II
Interrogative adverb may be a term that is no longer used too often, but is actually very clearly defined.
Among the so-called interrogative pronouns there are words that are actually pronouns in the narrower sense, that is, the one stands for a noun. e.g. "Wer" or "Quis" and those that are not actually pronouns in the true sense of the word, but that take on the syntactic function of an adverb.
See ubi-ibi. ibi is undisputedly an adverb, so ubi is also one. (but just an interrogative adverb) One could not say that of quis.
Su on 10/29/12 at 8:44 p.m. (quote) II

But “cur” is an adverbial definition!
And thanks to Biblus for the correction!
Clavileo on 10/29/12 at 9:54 p.m. (citation) I.


The fact that ubi is an "interrogative adverb" seems to me to be a sensible statement (I have never heard the word "interrogative adverb", but it makes sense), but I find the above argumentation questionable: So one would have to follow the pattern [ubi - ibi] argue alike: the word quia is a conjunction, so must cur also be one.
paeda on 10/30/12 at 9:45 a.m. (citation) II
The mentioned labeling problems will probably have to be reconsidered.

In my school days, for example, I learned demonstrative pronouns without being pointed out to the subtleties that these can only be called such when they stand on their own.

Today the students learn “companions”, but again without differentiation.

Example:

These windows are big. (Demonstrative companion)
There are many windows. These are big, those are small.
(Demonstrative pronouns).
Clavileo on 10/30/12 at 11:05 p.m. (citation) II
Well, I honestly believe that it is more confusing for students to deal too specifically with technical vocabulary ... In principle, it is also not necessary for a Latin student to be able to distinguish a demonstrative pronoun from a demonstrative companion, because he doesn't have to distinguish between them at all - he can see the Latin pronouns used as companions and vice versa. He should be able to use it.
Bibulus on October 31, 2012 at 1:44 a.m. (citation) I.

Says mistress to husband ...
:-D
paeda on 10/31/12 at 9:07 a.m. (citation) II
@Clavileonem

From a pragmatic point of view, I agree with you. If language is not to become more and more flat and communication is not to be more and more dependent on interpretation, then work must be done to acquire a more differentiated understanding of language. In any case, I would like to make an effort.

@Bibulum

If so, then: ..., says mistress to males. ;-))
Clavileo on 10/31/12 at 11:49 a.m. (citation) II
Cara Paeda, that makes me happy, too - I just mean that in most cases you fail if you want to bring people closer to a differentiated understanding of language: D From a lot of tutoring experience, I can say: Sometimes you don't believe what kind of linguistically gifted people everything can seem incomprehensible ... Personally, I would have liked a more differentiated way of expressing myself in school (and more qualified teachers who do not teach biology at the same time or something like that ...) - but you shouldn't confuse anyone unnecessarily.
paeda on 10/31/12 at 8:57 p.m. (citation) I.
Actually I think / believe that a differentiated understanding of language is connected with (thought) work and primarily requires interest and effort.

If there is no interest, there is also no effort, and then someone else's labor of love is also in vain. Not all of them have a use for beautiful pearls in order to transform a hearty formulation into a more subtle one.